infallibility?

not long ago, i thought about the notion i have heard where a man claimed infallibility.

i looked up infallible on webster.com:

Date: 15th century; 1. incapable of error: UNERRING; 2. not liable to mislead, deceive, or disappoint: CERTAIN; 3. incapable of error in defining doctrines touching faith or morals.

i then questioned, "was Christ infallible?" or, "was it possible for Christ to err, or sin?"

so far upon my own Biblical studies, i have not run across a scripture that even suggests the idea that Christ was infallible while He was in the flesh. from my studies, it seems to me that if Christ was not even able to sin, the fact that He was without sin would be practically moot.

also, if He was infallible in the flesh, why then would He have been tempted in ALL points? why would satan have wasted his time tempting Christ in the desert if Christ was not able to sin?

upon a short bit of Biblical study, one can easily and logically come to the conclusion that Christ Himself was NOT infallible while in the flesh.

interestingly enough, the dictionary also had a link for "papal infallibility":

Date: 1831 - the Roman Catholic doctrine that the pope cannot err when speaking ex cathedra in defining a doctrine of Christian faith or morals.

this signals to me a red flag to consider: Christ Himself - the Logos in the flesh (see John 1) - was NOT infallible, yet human men since Him have apparently claimed infallibility!

i would strongly suggest questioning the validity and integrity of any man who claims infallibility, when even Christ Himself in the flesh never did.

just a thought i felt the need to share.

8-)

bernard baruch carman
www.SeedsOfTruth.org
1/01; revised 7/05
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